¶ 1 In this disciplinary proceeding against a lawyer, the issues to be decided are: (1) Does the record submitted for our examination provide sufficient evidence for a meaningful de novo consideration of the complaint and of its disposition?
I
INTRODUCTION TO THE RECORD
¶ 2 The Oklahoma Bar Association (the Bar or complainant) charged Joseph Oliver Minter, V (Minter or respondent), a licensed lawyer, with nine counts of professional misconduct set forth in an original and two amended complaints. The parties submitted stipulations as to the facts only. A hearing was held before a trial panel (the trial panel) of the Professional Responsibility Tribunal (PRT) on 2 November 1999, after which the latter issued a report containing its findings of fact and conclusions of law together with a recommendation for discipline. The trial panel found respondent guilty of all nine counts of professional misconduct. It recommended that he be suspended for two years and directed to pay the costs of this proceeding.
II
BAR DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS ARE NOT SUBJECT TO THE OKLAHOMA OPEN MEETING ACT2
¶ 3 Respondent has moved for the dismissal of all charges against him or for the remand of this proceeding to the PRT for additional hearings on the ground that the court lacks subject matter jurisdiction. This is so, he argues, because the Bar and the Professional Responsibility Commission are subject to the provisions of the Oklahoma Open Meeting Act and have failed to abide by its terms. We disagree.
¶ 4 The Oklahoma Open Meeting Act (the Act) provides that all meetings of public bodies shall be held at a specified time and place convenient to the public and shall be open to the public.
¶ 6 Just as a grand jury is an accusatory appendage of the courts in the context of criminal prosecutions, so, too, are the Bar and the Professional Responsibility Commission the enforcement mechanism for and on behalf of this court in the context of professional discipline. The prosecutorial machinery for the enforcement of bar discipline is an essential component of the state judiciary and as such is exempt from the provisions of the Oklahoma Open Meeting Act.
III
THE RECORD BEFORE THE COURT PROVIDES SUFFICIENT EVIDENCE FOR A MEANINGFUL DE NOVO CONSIDERATION OF ALL FACTS RELEVANT TO THIS PROCEEDING
¶ 7 In a bar disciplinary proceeding the court functions as an adjudicative licensing authority that exercises exclusive original cognizance.
¶ 8 The court's duty can be discharged only if the trial panel submits to us a complete record of the proceedings.
¶ 9 Respondent contends that the record in this case is not sufficient for this court's de novo review.
¶ 10 Respondent objects to the trial panel report for its failure (1) to recite anywhere within its text the standard of proof — clear and convincing evidence — necessary to establish a violation,
¶ 11 Respondent's quest for relief based upon errors in the trial panel's report
¶ 12 The Bar and the PRT need only provide a sufficient record to serve as a basis for the court's exercise of its duty as the sole and final arbiter of a legal licensee's standing.
¶ 13 Having carefully scrutinized the record submitted to us in this proceeding, we conclude that it is adequate for de novo consideration of respondent's alleged professional misconduct.
IV
THE CHARGES AGAINST RESPONDENT
A. VIOLATIONS BASED ON DEALINGS WITH CLIENTS
1. Counts One and Two: The Cothran Grievance.
¶ 14 On 20 December 1994 the District Court, Pontotoc County, appointed respondent to serve as co-conservator of Mary L. Cothran (Ms. Cothran), an elderly woman confined to a nursing home. In July of 1993, Ms. Cothran's nephew, Tom Cothran (Mr. Cothran), had discovered that the person then serving as his aunt's conservator had been embezzling money and/or property from her estate. In appointing respondent as Ms. Cothran's new conservator, the court directed him to seek restitution of the assets embezzled by the former conservator as well
¶ 15 Prior to respondent's appointment, Mr. Cothran had engaged a Tulsa accounting firm to investigate and report on the amount embezzled. The report was not provided to respondent until April or early May 1995. Respondent, theorizing that the former conservator's law partners might be liable along with the former conservator, then met with lawyers for all three in an effort to negotiate a settlement. On 22 May 1995, while these negotiations were proceeding, Ms. Cothran died.
¶ 16 When the negotiations failed to produce a settlement, respondent filed an action in June 1995 against the former conservator and his law partners to recover the embezzled funds. Having as yet not filed a probate proceeding nor sought the appointment of a special administrator,
¶ 17 Respondent did not file a probate proceeding for Ms. Cothran's estate until 20 February 1997, almost two years after she died. Respondent testified that Mr. Cothran began pressing him to file a probate proceeding in the fall of 1995. Respondent also stipulated that Mr. Cothran prepared a final accounting of the conservatorship, which he, respondent, never filed. Although he stipulated that he received the final accounting from Mr. Cothran in May 1995, he testified at the PRT hearing that the stipulation was in error and that he did not in fact obtain it until March 1997.
¶ 18 Respondent stipulated that "Mr. Cothran felt that Respondent failed to properly communicate with him about the status of the conservatorship and probate." Despite this acknowledgment of Mr. Cothran's feelings about the level of communication between them, respondent testified that he believed he properly communicated with Mr. Cothran. Mr. Cothran did not testify.
¶ 19 The trial panel concluded that respondent violated the following sections of the Oklahoma Rules of Professional Conduct (ORPC): Rule 1.1(failing to provide competent representation),
¶ 20 We agree that the record provides clear and convincing evidence respondent failed to provide competent and diligent
¶ 21 We disagree with the trial panel's conclusion that respondent violated ORPC Rule 1.16(d). The complaint does not allege facts and the record fails to establish that respondent failed to take steps after discharge to protect his client's interests. Nevertheless, the complaint does allege and the evidence does establish a violation of ORPC Rule 1.16(a)(5), which requires a lawyer to withdraw upon being discharged.
¶ 22 The Bar also charged respondent with violating ORPC Rule 8.4(d) by engaging in conduct "prejudicial to the administration of justice" and RGDP Rule 1.3 by engaging in behavior contrary to prescribed standards of conduct and bringing discredit upon the legal profession. In its brief the Bar indicates that it brought these charges based upon the totality of the circumstances constituting Counts One and Two of the complaint. Respondent asserts that nothing in the complaint, including the "bare citation" of the rules in its "boilerplate" paragraphs, informs him that the charges are based on the totality of the circumstances. This, he urges, constitutes a violation of his right to due process.
¶ 23 Due process must be afforded an accused attorney in a bar disciplinary proceeding.
¶ 24 While we disagree with respondent that the application of Rule 8.4(d) to his misconduct would violate his right to due process, we do agree with respondent's contention that his conduct in the Cothran matter was not prejudicial to the administration of justice. In State ex rel. Oklahoma Bar Association v. Bourne,
The Bar has not cited any case law, statute, or court rules, other than the substantive violations of the ORPC and RGDP, the breach of which would serve to establish that respondent engaged in conduct prejudicial to the administration of judicial process.
¶ 25 As for RGDP Rule 1.3, we find that there is clear and convincing evidence that respondent's conduct violates that provision.
2. Count Four: The Goff Grievance.
¶ 26 On 27 March 1998, Ron Hanna filed a lawsuit against Larry Paul Goff (Goff) to recover money for medical services rendered. Goff retained respondent to represent him. Respondent failed to timely file an Entry of Appearance or an Answer, and a default judgment was entered against Goff on 11 May 1998. On 12 May 1998, respondent
¶ 27 Upon obtaining the default judgment, the plaintiff's attorney, who was unaware that Goff had retained counsel, sent Goff a copy of the journal entry of default judgment. Goff's wife immediately called respondent and spoke to his secretary, who assured her that respondent would file a "Motion for Rehearing." Respondent did not then nor at any other time file a motion to vacate the default judgment. Goff and his wife repeatedly called respondent's office between the date they learned of the default judgment and the date they finally retained new counsel. Respondent did not return any of their telephone calls.
¶ 28 The trial panel found respondent guilty of violating ORPC Rules 1.1, 1.3, and 1.4.
3. Count Six: The Sloan Grievance.
¶ 29 In early 1994, Sharon Pittman, Tonya Pittman, and Cindy Pittman (the Pittmans) agreed to sell a parcel of land to Leon Sloan. The land had belonged to Charles Pittman, deceased. It had never been probated. Respondent testified that when the Pittmans retained him in March 1994 to represent them in connection with the sale of the land to Sloan, it was understood that he was to furnish Sloan with marketable title.
¶ 30 Respondent did nothing for almost two-and-one-half years. During that time, Sloan called respondent's office a couple of times, but respondent testified that he did not believe it was necessary to return his calls and never spoke to him. He did not recall ever speaking to the Pittmans during that period either. On 29 August 1996, respondent had each of the Pittmans execute a quit-claim deed to Sloan. Respondent testified in explanation of the delay that it was "one of those things that got stuck on the back burner." Tonya and Cindy were both married women, but neither husband signed the deed.
¶ 31 The execution of the deeds by the Pittmans did nothing to clear the cloud on Sloan's title to the property. He appeared in
¶ 32 On 11 June 1998, the day before he filed the deeds, respondent filed a quiet-title action in the District Court, Marshall County, styled Leon Sloan v. The Unknown Heirs of Charles Junior Pittman, in which he represented that he was Sloan's attorney. Respondent did not confer with Sloan prior to taking this action on his behalf, did not inform Sloan after the fact that he had filed a petition in his name, nor did he otherwise communicate with Sloan during the pendency of the action. Respondent argues in his brief that a letter Sloan wrote to the Bar after the quiet title action had been filed shows that Sloan was aware of the action brought on his behalf. On 21 August 1998, the district court entered an order quieting title in Sloan.
¶ 33 The trial panel concluded that respondent had violated ORPC Rules 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4 and 3.2, as well as RGDP Rule 5.2.
¶ 34 The complaint may also be understood to charge respondent with the same ethical violations toward Sloan. This presents a threshold question as to whether Sloan can be regarded as respondent's client for disciplinary purposes. Oklahoma recognizes that a duty may be created by a contract which is made expressly for the benefit of a third-party non-client beneficiary when harm to the beneficiary is foreseeable.
¶ 35 The amended complaint contains no factual allegations in this count that would serve to establish a violation of RGDP Rule 5.2. Of that charge respondent stands exonerated.
B. VIOLATIONS BASED ON MINTER'S RESPONSES TO THE BAR
1. Count Three: The Cothran Grievance.
¶ 36 Mr. Cothran sent a written grievance letter to the Bar dated 17 October 1997. On 24 October 1997, the Bar mailed a letter to respondent pursuant to RGDP Rule 5.2, requesting a written response to the
¶ 37 The Bar also charged respondent in Count Three with violating the provisions of ORPC Rule 8.1(b) (knowingly failing to respond to a lawful demand for information from a disciplinary authority) and 8.4(d) (conduct prejudicial to the administration of justice). The trial panel did not find that the Bar had met its burden of proof with respect to these two charges. We agree.
2. Count Five: The Goff Grievance.
¶ 38 On 26 August 1998, Goff filed a written grievance with the Bar, which was precipitated by Minter's failure to respond to a certified letter Goff had sent him two weeks earlier discharging him and requesting that he transfer Goff's file to the latter's new attorney, Stanley Anderson (Anderson). The Bar informed respondent of the grievance and received a reply from him dated 22 October 1998, in which respondent assured the Bar that he had turned over all documents to Anderson. In fact, respondent had not turned over any documents to Anderson as of that date. Anderson did not receive Goff's file until 10 November 1998.
¶ 39 The Bar charged respondent with violating ORPC Rule 8.1(a),
3. Count Seven: The Sloan Grievance.
¶ 40 Sloan sent a written grievance letter to the Bar on 10 November 1997.
¶ 41 The trial panel concluded that respondent's conduct violated RGDP Rule 5.2. We agree.
4. Count Eight: The Sharon Sanders Grievance.
¶ 42 Sharon Sanders sent a grievance letter to the Bar in late August or early
¶ 43 The trial panel concluded that respondent violated RGDP Rule 5.2. We agree.
5. Count Nine: The Kathy L. Reed Grievance.
¶ 44 On 17 March 1999, Kathy L. Reed filed a grievance with the Bar. On 8 April 1999, the Bar mailed a letter to respondent pursuant to RGDP Rule 5.2, requesting a response to the grievance within twenty (20) days. Respondent received but did not respond to this letter. On 3 May 1999, the Bar mailed a letter to respondent by certified mail, requesting a response to Reed's grievance within five (5) days. Respondent received but did not respond to this letter. A subpoena duces tecum was issued for respondent's deposition, which was taken on 30 July 1999. During that deposition respondent promised while under oath to provide the Bar with certain requested material, including a written response to the grievance and correspondence with his client. The requested material was never provided.
¶ 45 The trial panel concluded that respondent violated RGDP Rule 5.2. We agree.
V
FACTORS CALLING FOR THE ENHANCEMENT OF DISCIPLINE
¶ 46 In addition to his repeated failures to respond to the Bar's inquiries, respondent also failed to timely respond to pleadings filed with this court and to orders of the presiding Master.
¶ 47 Respondent stipulated that he has received two private reprimands from the Professional Responsibility Commission, the first for neglect and the second for neglect
VI
FACTORS RAISED BY RESPONDENT IN MITIGATION
¶ 48 Mitigating circumstances may be considered in assessing the quantum of discipline that is appropriate.
¶ 49 Respondent further contends that if this court disciplines respondent for his conduct in the Cothran matter, it "will be viewed, rightly or wrongly, by many attorneys, particularly in Southeastern Oklahoma, as a warning or statement that the `politically powerful' should not be challenged." We fail to see how the imposition of discipline on respondent for not aggressively pursuing a civil action against two "politically powerful" attorneys could possibly be construed by other attorneys as a warning not to pursue legitimate claims against those in positions of power or prestige. The message we intend is precisely the opposite — a lawyer's obligation to a client is the same regardless of whom an opposing party happens to be.
¶ 50 Respondent urges us to consider his father's illness and death in mitigation of his failure to respond to the Bar. Respondent's father fell ill in August of 1999 and died on 12 September 1999. During his deposition on 30 July 1999, respondent promised to furnish the Bar with certain documents relating to the Kathy Reed grievance. As of the date of the PRT hearing — 2 November 1999 — he still had not done so, but attributes this lapse to his preoccupation with his father's deteriorating condition and subsequent death. Respondent also attributes his failure to answer the second amended complaint to the fact that he did not go to the post office to collect his certified mail for an unspecified, but considerable, period of time following his father's death.
¶ 51 Were respondent's failures to respond to the Bar confined to this period of time, we would be inclined to place greater credence in his father's death as a cause of respondent's misconduct.
¶ 52 It is this court's duty to protect the public. Regardless of his personal loss, respondent nevertheless had a duty to his clients and to the Bar to claim certified mail within a reasonable time after his father's death.
¶ 53 Respondent testified that he has agreed to work at his own expense with Jim Calloway, a risk assessment manager for the Bar's law office management program, and that he has instituted changes in his office procedures. We have previously considered these undertakings as mitigating factors in assessing discipline.
¶ 54 The remaining circumstances put forth by respondent as mitigating are summarily rejected. They provide neither justification nor excuse for respondent's misconduct and give the court no reason to lessen the severity of the disciplinary measure otherwise warranted by respondent's lapses of professional ethics.
VII
RESPONDENT'S MISCONDUCT WARRANTS A SUSPENSION OF HIS LICENSE TO PRACTICE LAW FOR TWO YEARS AND ONE DAY TOGETHER WITH PAYMENT OF THE COSTS OF THIS PROCEEDING
¶ 55 A license to practice law is not conferred for the benefit of the licensee, but for that of the public. The disciplinary process, including the imposition of a disciplinary sanction, is designed not to punish the delinquent lawyer, but to safeguard the interest of the public, the judiciary, and the legal profession.
¶ 56 The trial panel recommended that respondent be suspended for a period of two years. We disagree. Respondent's misconduct — toward clients as well as toward the Bar and this court — demonstrates a degree of unfitness to practice law that calls for something more than a simple suspension. Respondent's mishandling of the Cothran, Goff, and Sloan matters displays a pattern of incompetence in the fundamentals of legal practice together with an unconscionable lack of diligence. A lawyer is licensed to assist litigants and the courts in administering judicial process. When an attorney accepts employment, he or she accepts the responsibility to competently and expeditiously process a client's case. "The wheels of justice should
¶ 57 Respondent's chronic disregard of his obligation to respond to inquiries from the Bar demonstrates an indifference bordering on hostility toward the Bar and the court. Respondent has stipulated to nearly a dozen instances where he received letters from the Bar and failed to respond. This is itself grounds for discipline.
¶ 58 The public's interest in maintaining access to competent legal representation is best served by examination of a practitioner's performance over a span of time and an inquiry into the lawyer's professional history. If that history should reveal a pattern of misconduct, it will be a factor in tailoring the appropriate discipline.
VIII
SUMMARY
¶ 59 The record in this case provides clear and convincing evidence of respondent's lack of fitness to practice law. He has repeatedly failed competently and diligently to represent his clients, causing them financial harm and emotional distress. He has shown contempt for the Bar and the court by his refusal to respond to disciplinary inquiries. Respondent needs time to reassess his professional life. Our duty to safeguard the public, the judiciary, and the legal profession requires that, before respondent is again permitted to practice law in this jurisdiction, he convince the court he has overcome the tendencies that have brought him before us today.
¶ 60
¶ 61 ALL JUSTICES CONCUR.
FootNotes
He also testified,
The United States Supreme Court has developed two doctrines under which imprecise laws may be facially attacked. First, laws that inhibit the exercise of First Amendment rights may be challenged under the overbreadth doctrine as facially invalid "if the impermissible applications of the law are substantial when `judged in relation to the statute's plainly legitimate sweep.'" Chicago v. Morales, 527 U.S. 41, 52, 119 S.Ct. 1849, 1857, 144 L.Ed.2d 67 (1999), quoting from Broadrick v. Oklahoma, 413 U.S. 601, 610, 93 S.Ct. 2908, 2915, 37 L.Ed.2d 830 (1973). Enactments that do not fall within the overbreadth doctrine may nevertheless be challenged under the void for vagueness doctrine if the law "fails to establish standards for the police and public that are sufficient to guard against the arbitrary deprivation of liberty interests." Morales, supra; Kolender v. Lawson, 461 U.S. 352, 358, 103 S.Ct. 1855, 75 L.Ed.2d 903 (1983). A successful facial challenge may be averted by a limiting judicial construction, which narrows a facially overbroad enactment's operation in a way that removes the seeming threat to constitutionally protected expression. Erznoznik v. Jacksonville, 422 U.S. 205, 216, 95 S.Ct. 2268, 2276, 45 L.Ed.2d 125 (1975); Boos v. Barry, 485 U.S. 312, 329, 108 S.Ct. 1157, 1168, 99 L.Ed.2d 333 (1988).
The rules governing the professional conduct of attorneys in large measure regulate communication and expression, and not just non-expressive conduct, thus implicating the First Amendment in their application. On its face, the phrase "conduct prejudicial to the administration of justice" used in Rule 8.4(d) is not sufficiently definite to provide fair warning of the parameters of the conduct the rule proscribes. The problem is in the use of the word "justice." In his treatise, General Theory of Law and State (Harvard University Press, 1945), the noted twentieth-century legal philosopher Hans Kelsen posits that justice — the ideal of a just social order — is a subjective, socially constructed judgment of value, which varies from place to place and time to time. It is not determined by means of rational cognition. "Since humanity is divided into many nations, classes, religions, professions and so on, often at variance with one another, there are a great many very different ideas of justice; too many for one to be able to speak simply of `justice.'" Id. at 8. The doctrine of natural law claims to establish the content of justice on a rational basis, but Kelsen argues that its claim is illusory. "[N]one of the numerous natural law theories has so far succeeded in defining the content of this just order in a way even approaching the exactness and objectivity with which natural science can determine the content of the laws of nature, or legal science the content of a positive legal order." Id. at 9. See also Sniadach v. Family Finance Corp. of Bay View, 395 U.S. 337, 350-351, 89 S.Ct. 1820, 1827, 23 L.Ed.2d 349 (1969) (Black, J., dissenting); Calder v. Bull, 3 U.S. (3 Dall.) 386, 398-399, 1 L.Ed. 648 (1798) (Iradell, J., concurring). Rather than seeking "justice," Kelsen maintains that the best a society can do is establish a positive legal order that minimizes the frictions among different interests and in doing so, establishes a framework for social peace.
We view the use of the bar disciplinary process to penalize conduct that prejudices justice in the sense that Kelsen develops it in his treatise — as being indeed unconstitutionally overbroad. Hence, in Bourne, we adopted a limiting or narrowing construction of Rule 8.4(d) in which the word justice is understood to mean the "just" application of the rules established by a positive legal order without regard to the "justness" of their content. In this sense, justice is synonymous with the course of adjudication, i.e. the judicial process. Interference with justice in this limited sense is susceptible of objective determination. In Bourne, we tied the application of Rule 8.4(d) to instances of severe interference with judicial proceedings and to conduct of such a serious nature that it harms our system of justice as a whole. Bourne, supra, at 362-363; State ex rel. Okl. Bar Ass'n v. Taylor, 1997 OK 48, ¶ 13, 937 P.2d 81, 84. We further noted in Bourne that lawyers should be able to deduce from the text of the rules governing professional conduct generally and those relating to Rule 8.4(d) specifically "that Rule 8.4(d) is intended to proscribe behavior already disapproved by case law, statute, or court rules" as well as the "lore of the profession." See generally J.H. BAKER, THE LAW'S TWO BODIES, pgs. 59 et seq. (Oxford Press 2001) (referring to "lore of the profession" as "common learning."). Additionally, Bourne sets out a comprehensive recitation of the cases in which a violation of Rule 8.4(d) has been found. Hence, through the process of judicial decision-making, the parameters of Rule 8.4(d) have been made concrete enough to apprize a lawyer of what conduct is proscribed by the rule. Ethics Comm'n v. Keating, supra, at ¶ 5, n. 9, at 1268, n. 9 (Opala, J., dissenting).
Clarity would be better served by the substitution in jurisprudence dealing with Rule 8.4(d) of the phrase "conduct prejudicial to the administration of judicial process" for the phrase "conduct prejudicial to the administration of justice." Bourne's narrowing construction of Rule 8.4(d) makes the two phrases synonymous, but replacing the phrase "conduct prejudicial to the administration of justice" with "conduct prejudicial to the administration of judicial process" better expresses the meaning of the rule.
"A contract, made expressly for the benefit of a third person, may be enforced by him at any time before the parties thereto rescind it."
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